MH SET Life Science Previous Year Paper 2021 – Solved Questions with Explanations
Preparing for the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test (MH SET) 2025 Life Science paper? If yes, then reviewing previous year question papers with detailed solutions is one of the most effective strategies to enhance your exam preparation. In this post, we’ve compiled and solved 100 carefully selected questions from the 2024 MH SET Life Science exam, along with in-depth explanations to strengthen your conceptual understanding.
Whether you’re a first-time aspirant or retaking the MH SET, solving the MH SET Life Science Previous Year Paper 2021 will help you identify important topics, analyze question trends, and improve your accuracy and speed.
Why Practice MH SET 2024 Life Science Previous Year Paper?
The MH SET Life Science paper follows a well-structured syllabus aligned with CSIR-NET and other national-level exams. However, MH SET has its own pattern and question style, which aspirants must understand thoroughly. Practicing the 2024 question paper helps you:
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✅ Understand the question pattern and difficulty level
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✅ Learn which topics are frequently asked
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✅ Develop time management skills
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✅ Avoid common mistakes in the exam
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✅ Boost your confidence through self-assessment
Highlights of MH SET Life Science 2024 Question Paper
Based on a detailed analysis of the 2024 Life Science paper, the questions were:
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A mix of conceptual and factual
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Strong emphasis on topics like Cell Biology, Molecular Biology, Genetics, Plant Physiology, Ecology, and Biotechnology
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Application-based questions involving diagrams, match the following, and assertion-reason type
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Some questions directly repeated or twisted from previous years
MH SET Previous Year Question Paper 2021 Life Science – Solved Questions with Explanations
1. Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is used while separating proteins by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis because:
A) it helps in solubilization of proteins making it easier to separate
B) it binds to proteins and confers a uniform negative charge density thereby making them move during electrophoresis
C) decreases surface tension of the buffer used for electrophoresis
D) stabilizes the protein
Answer: B
Explanation: SDS binds to proteins and gives them a uniform negative charge, allowing separation solely based on size in SDS-PAGE.
2. Cytochalasin D inhibits the formation of microfilaments. Which of the following biological activities will not be hindered?
A) Muscle contraction
B) Cytosolic transport of vesicles
C) Amoeboid movement of phagocytic cells
D) Formation of cleavage furrow following telophase of mitosis
Answer: B
Explanation: Vesicle transport primarily involves microtubules, not actin filaments which are disrupted by Cytochalasin D.
3. Which of the following statements for 'Genetic drift' is FALSE?
A) Genetic drift can cause allele frequencies to change at random
B) Genetic drift can lead to richness of genetic variation within populations
C) Genetic drift can cause harmful alleles to become fixed
D) Genetic drift affects allele frequencies stronger in small populations
Answer: B
Explanation: Genetic drift typically reduces genetic variation, especially in small populations, not increases it.
4. According to Oparin, which of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
A) methane
B) hydrogen
C) water
D) oxygen
Answer: D
Explanation: The early atmosphere was reducing, lacking free oxygen, which appeared much later due to photosynthesis.
5. Life is said to have originated as coacervates that were formed by:
A) DNA
B) Radiations
C) Polymerization and aggregation
D) Heat
Answer: C
Explanation: Coacervates are formed by spontaneous polymerization and aggregation of macromolecules like proteins.
6. When a taxon is restricted to a particular geographical region, then it is called:
A) Endemic
B) Low risk
C) Threatened
D) Critically endangered
Answer: A
Explanation: A species is endemic if it is found only in a specific region and nowhere else.
7. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) mice do not have:
A) B & T cells
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Answer: A
Explanation: SCID is caused by defects in lymphocyte development, leading to absence of B and T cells.
8. The lichen Roccella is a source of:
A) Condiment
B) Dye
C) Antibiotic
D) Therapeutic compounds
Answer: B
Explanation: Roccella species are used to extract litmus, a dye used in pH indicators.
9. Seasonal activity of cambium leads to:
A) Ring porous wood
B) Both ring porous and diffuse porous wood
C) Diffuse porous wood
D) Heteroporous wood
Answer: B
Explanation: Cambial activity varies with season, producing either ring-porous (large early vessels) or diffuse-porous woods.
10. Cytoplasmic male sterility occurs as a result of interaction of:
A) Nucleus and plastid
B) Mitochondria and plastid
C) Nucleus and Golgi
D) Nucleus and mitochondria
Answer: D
Explanation: CMS is due to mitochondrial mutations influenced by nuclear restorer genes.
11. The enzyme Acetyl-CoA carboxylase belongs to which class of enzymes?
A) Transferases
B) Hydrolases
C) Lyases
D) Ligases
Answer: D
Explanation: It adds a carboxyl group to acetyl-CoA, forming malonyl-CoA, a ligase action.
12. According to Vavilov, mango, sugarcane, rice, and brinjal originated in:
A) Hindustan centre
B) Abyssynian centre
C) Asia Minor centre
D) China centre
Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian (Hindustan) center is one of the primary centers of origin proposed by Vavilov.
13. Which of the following techniques is best for determining the precise location of the radioactive isotope in a specimen?
A) Ultracentrifugation
B) Atomic force microscope
C) Autoradiography
D) Fluorescence microscope
Answer: C
Explanation: Autoradiography allows visualization of radioactive isotopes in cells or tissues.
14. In bacterial glucose phosphotransferase system, glucose is converted to glucose-6-phosphate. What is the source of phosphate?
A) ATP
B) Inorganic phosphate
C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
D) Creatine phosphate
Answer: C
Explanation: PEP donates phosphate via a cascade in the PTS system, energizing glucose transport and phosphorylation.
15. The end product of AMP and GMP catabolism in humans is:
A) Urea
B) Creatinine
C) Xanthine
D) Uric acid
Answer: D
Explanation: Uric acid is the final product of purine metabolism in humans.
16. Which of the following bonds in proteins has partial double bond character?
A) Cα–C
B) Cα–Cβ
C) C=O
D) C–N (peptide bond)
Answer: D
Explanation: The peptide bond (C–N) has resonance with the C=O group, giving it partial double bond character.
17. When bacteria growing at 20°C are shifted to 40°C, they are most likely to synthesize membrane lipids with more:
A) Short chain saturated fatty acids
B) Long chain saturated fatty acids
C) Short chain unsaturated fatty acids
D) Long chain unsaturated fatty acids
Answer: B
Explanation: Higher temperatures require more rigid (saturated), longer-chain fatty acids to maintain membrane stability.
18. The type of microscopy used to examine bacteria stained by gram staining is:
A) Bright field microscope
B) Fluorescence microscope
C) Dark field microscope
D) Transmission electron microscope
Answer: A
Explanation: Bright field microscopy is commonly used for Gram-stained specimens.
19. Mesenteries are found in:
A) Diploblastic animals
B) Triploblastic animals
C) Friploblastic animals
D) Pseudocoelomates
Answer: B
Explanation: Mesenteries are connective tissues supporting internal organs, found in triploblastic coelomates.
20. In a DNA sequence, if nucleotide A is replaced by G, the resulting mutation is a:
A) Transversion
B) Frameshift
C) Missense
D) Transition
Answer: D
Explanation: A to G is a purine to purine substitution → called a transition mutation.
21. Which one of the following is correct for Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase?
A) Na⁺ and K⁺ bind on the extracellular side, ATP and ouabain on intracellular
B) Na⁺ and K⁺ bind on the intracellular side, ATP and ouabain on extracellular
C) K⁺ and ATP bind on intracellular, Na⁺ and ouabain on extracellular
D) Na⁺ and ATP bind on intracellular, K⁺ and ouabain on extracellular
Answer: D
Explanation: The pump binds Na⁺ and ATP inside, then K⁺ and ouabain outside during the pumping cycle.
22. The sequencing of ______ helped investigators classify all life into three domains.
A) DNA
B) Cytochrome C
C) rRNA
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: C
Explanation: 16S rRNA sequencing revolutionized microbial taxonomy, leading to the three-domain system.
23. Mark the correct statement:
A) In active transport molecules move from higher to lower concentration
B) Carrier protein is involved in both active transport and facilitated diffusion
C) Energy is consumed to move molecules against gradient in active transport only
D) In active transport, only water molecules are transported using energy
Answer: C
Explanation: Active transport consumes energy to move molecules against gradient; facilitated diffusion does not.
24. Hybrid zone is a region where:
A) Hybrids can develop
B) Genetically distinct populations meet and interbreed
C) Genetically similar populations cannot interbreed
D) Same populations meet and exchange genes
Answer: B
Explanation: A hybrid zone is where two divergent populations interbreed, producing hybrids.
25. The sedimentation coefficient increases with:
A) Increase in solvent density
B) Increase in friction
C) Decrease in mass of the particle
D) Decrease in partial specific volume
Answer: D
Explanation: Lower partial specific volume makes a particle denser → faster sedimentation (↑ S-value).
26. The unit of mutation rate is:
A) base pair per cell
B) base pair per cell per generation
C) base pair per gene per generation
D) base pair per nucleotide
Answer: C
Explanation: Mutation rate is generally expressed as mutations per gene per generation, indicating how often a change occurs.
27. Which of the following characteristics is not applicable to phylum Aschelminthes?
A) Pseudocoelomates
B) Parasitic
C) Hermaphrodite
D) Circular and longitudinal muscles
Answer: D
Explanation: Aschelminthes (e.g., nematodes) lack circular muscles, possessing only longitudinal muscles.
28. In neurons, which type of cytoskeleton is mainly involved in axonal transport?
A) Actin filaments
B) Microtubules
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Myosin
Answer: B
Explanation: Microtubules form the tracks for anterograde and retrograde axonal transport, guided by motor proteins.
29. ATP production from pyruvate under aerobic condition is:
A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 30
Answer: C
Explanation: One pyruvate yields 15 ATP (including from NADH and FADH₂) during its full oxidation through the TCA cycle.
30. Dendritic cells are involved in:
A) Antibody production
B) Cell-mediated immunity
C) Antigen presentation
D) Release of histamine
Answer: C
Explanation: Dendritic cells are professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) that initiate adaptive immune responses.
31. Antigens bind to antibodies through:
A) Covalent bonds
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Disulfide bonds
D) Ionic and hydrophobic interactions
Answer: D
Explanation: Antigen-antibody interactions are non-covalent, involving ionic, hydrogen, hydrophobic, and van der Waals forces.
32. In vertebrate eye, which cells are responsible for color vision?
A) Rod cells
B) Cone cells
C) Ganglion cells
D) Bipolar cells
Answer: B
Explanation: Cone cells detect color and are concentrated in the fovea. Rod cells are for dim light vision.
33. A secondary metabolite used as an anticancer drug derived from Taxus brevifolia is:
A) Paclitaxel
B) Morphine
C) Vinblastine
D) Aspirin
Answer: A
Explanation: Paclitaxel (Taxol) is extracted from Pacific yew tree (Taxus brevifolia) and used in cancer therapy.
34. The hormone secreted from alpha cells of pancreas is:
A) Glucagon
B) Insulin
C) Somatostatin
D) Amylin
Answer: A
Explanation: Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon, which raises blood glucose levels.
35. Deamination of adenine gives:
A) Cytosine
B) Uracil
C) Xanthine
D) Hypoxanthine
Answer: D
Explanation: Adenine → hypoxanthine via deamination, which can lead to mutations during DNA replication.
36. Which of the following enzyme activities does DNA polymerase I of E. coli possess?
A) 3′→5′ exonuclease
B) 5′→3′ exonuclease
C) 5′→3′ polymerase
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: DNA Pol I has 5′→3′ polymerase, 3′→5′ proofreading, and 5′→3′ exonuclease (important for RNA primer removal).
37. The main excretory product in reptiles is:
A) Ammonia
B) Urea
C) Uric acid
D) CO₂
Answer: C
Explanation: Uricotelic animals like reptiles and birds excrete uric acid to conserve water.
38. Liverworts reproduce by:
A) Zoospores
B) Gemmae
C) Conidia
D) Budding
Answer: B
Explanation: Liverworts like Marchantia reproduce asexually by gemmae, small multicellular bodies.
39. A molecule that inhibits an enzyme by binding to its active site is called:
A) Non-competitive inhibitor
B) Competitive inhibitor
C) Allosteric effector
D) Feedback inhibitor
Answer: B
Explanation: Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and compete for the active site.
40. Which of the following cells contain no nucleus at maturity?
A) Red blood cells
B) Lymphocytes
C) Neurons
D) Epithelial cells
Answer: A
Explanation: Mature mammalian RBCs are anucleate to provide more space for hemoglobin.
41. In the human genome, the coding region accounts for approximately:
A) 98%
B) 50%
C) 10%
D) 2%
Answer: D
Explanation: Only ~2% of the human genome encodes proteins; the rest includes non-coding DNA, regulatory sequences, etc.
42. The primary acceptor of electrons in photosystem II is:
A) Ferredoxin
B) Pheophytin
C) Plastocyanin
D) Plastoquinone
Answer: B
Explanation: In PSII, pheophytin is the first molecule to receive electrons from the excited chlorophyll.
43. Which vitamin is required for the carboxylation of clotting factors?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin E
Answer: B
Explanation: Vitamin K is essential for γ-carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
44. Which organism is an example of eusociality?
A) Ant
B) Mosquito
C) Ladybird beetle
D) Drosophila
Answer: A
Explanation: Ants are eusocial insects, with division of labor, reproductive castes, and cooperative brood care.
45. The typical DNA helix pitch is:
A) 3.4 nm
B) 2.0 nm
C) 0.34 nm
D) 0.2 nm
Answer: A
Explanation: One turn of the B-DNA helix is 3.4 nm long and includes 10 base pairs.
46. The gene responsible for hybrid sterility in plants is called:
A) Restorer gene
B) Lethal gene
C) Inhibitor gene
D) S-gene
Answer: A
Explanation: Restorer genes (Rf) overcome cytoplasmic male sterility and restore fertility in hybrids.
47. In mammals, where does fertilization take place?
A) Vagina
B) Uterus
C) Cervix
D) Fallopian tube
Answer: D
Explanation: Fertilization occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
48. Which mineral is required for the proper functioning of thyroid hormones?
A) Iodine
B) Zinc
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: A
Explanation: Iodine is essential for synthesis of T₃ and T₄ thyroid hormones.
49. Photoreactivation is a DNA repair process in which the enzyme photolyase removes:
A) Mismatch bases
B) Alkyl groups
C) Pyrimidine dimers
D) Abasic sites
Answer: C
Explanation: Photolyase repairs UV-induced pyrimidine dimers using light energy.
50. Which is an in vivo technique used for studying protein-DNA interaction?
A) Western blot
B) Electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)
C) Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)
D) DNA footprinting
Answer: C
Explanation: ChIP allows detection of protein-DNA interactions in living cells (in vivo) by immunoprecipitating cross-linked DNA-protein complexes.
51. The structure responsible for osmotic regulation in amoeba is:
A) Food vacuole
B) Contractile vacuole
C) Mitochondria
D) Nucleus
Answer: B
Explanation: The contractile vacuole expels excess water to maintain osmotic balance in freshwater protozoa.
52. Which of the following is an allelochemical involved in intraspecific communication?
A) Kairomone
B) Synomone
C) Allomone
D) Pheromone
Answer: D
Explanation: Pheromones are chemicals used for communication within the same species (intraspecific).
53. The correct order of events in apoptosis is:
A) Chromatin condensation → Cell shrinkage → DNA fragmentation
B) Cell shrinkage → Chromatin condensation → DNA fragmentation
C) DNA fragmentation → Cell shrinkage → Chromatin condensation
D) Cell shrinkage → DNA fragmentation → Chromatin condensation
Answer: B
Explanation: Typical apoptosis: cell shrinkage → chromatin condensation → DNA fragmentation → membrane blebbing.
54. In ecological succession, the sequence of communities that replace one another is called:
A) Pioneer community
B) Climax community
C) Sere
D) Ecotone
Answer: C
Explanation: A sere is the entire sequence of communities in a succession from pioneer to climax.
55. Which of the following is a direct product of the Calvin cycle?
A) Glucose
B) ATP
C) NADPH
D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
Answer: D
Explanation: The direct product of Calvin cycle is G3P, which is later used to make glucose and other sugars.
56. In gel filtration chromatography, the molecules are separated on the basis of:
A) Size
B) Charge
C) Shape
D) Affinity
Answer: A
Explanation: Gel filtration (size exclusion) separates molecules based on molecular size—larger elute earlier.
57. Enzyme that seals nicks in DNA during replication is:
A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA helicase
C) DNA ligase
D) DNA topoisomerase
Answer: C
Explanation: DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bonds, sealing nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone.
58. Which of the following hormone is responsible for maintaining corpus luteum?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) Prolactin
D) hCG
Answer: D
Explanation: hCG (from the embryo) maintains the corpus luteum, ensuring progesterone production during pregnancy.
59. When two species live in similar habitats and have similar needs, the species with even a slight reproductive advantage will eliminate the other. This is called:
A) Mutualism
B) Competitive exclusion
C) Niche overlapping
D) Resource partitioning
Answer: B
Explanation: The competitive exclusion principle says no two species can occupy the exact same niche indefinitely.
60. What type of virus is used in gene therapy due to its ability to integrate into host genome?
A) Adenovirus
B) Retrovirus
C) Bacteriophage
D) Orthomyxovirus
Answer: B
Explanation: Retroviruses integrate their genome into host DNA using reverse transcriptase—ideal for gene therapy.
61. Which of the following techniques is used to detect protein-protein interactions?
A) Northern blot
B) Southern blot
C) Yeast two-hybrid system
D) DNA footprinting
Answer: C
Explanation: The yeast two-hybrid system detects physical interaction between two proteins using a reporter gene.
62. Which type of epithelium lines the alveoli of lungs?
A) Simple cuboidal
B) Stratified squamous
C) Simple squamous
D) Ciliated columnar
Answer: C
Explanation: Alveoli are lined by simple squamous epithelium—thin for gas exchange.
63. Which among the following has a symbiotic association with leguminous plants?
A) Azotobacter
B) Anabaena
C) Nostoc
D) Rhizobium
Answer: D
Explanation: Rhizobium forms root nodules in legumes and fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
64. Which phase of the cell cycle is the most variable in duration?
A) G1
B) S
C) G2
D) M
Answer: A
Explanation: G1 phase (post-mitotic/pre-DNA synthesis) varies the most depending on cell type and signals.
65. Which of the following is a pluripotent stem cell?
A) Zygote
B) Morula
C) Inner cell mass
D) Neuron
Answer: C
Explanation: Cells of the inner cell mass (embryonic stem cells) are pluripotent, giving rise to all body tissues.
66. Which one of the following is not a component of a typical lac operon in E. coli?
A) LacZ
B) LacA
C) LacC
D) LacY
Answer: C
Explanation: Lac operon includes lacZ, lacY, and lacA. lacC is not part of it.
67. Which process contributes to genetic variation during meiosis?
A) Telophase I
B) Anaphase II
C) Crossing over in Prophase I
D) Metaphase II
Answer: C
Explanation: Crossing over during Prophase I (pachytene) is a key source of genetic variation.
68. Which of the following statements about Chlorophyll a is correct?
A) Found only in red algae
B) Is the primary photosynthetic pigment in plants
C) Absorbs green light
D) Found only in angiosperms
Answer: B
Explanation: Chlorophyll a is the main pigment for light absorption in photosynthesis.
69. In the process of translation initiation in eukaryotes, the ribosome binds to:
A) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
B) Kozak sequence
C) TATA box
D) CAAT box
Answer: B
Explanation: In eukaryotes, translation starts at the Kozak sequence near the start codon (AUG).
70. The role of Okazaki fragments in DNA replication is to:
A) Join leading strand
B) Form RNA primer
C) Synthesize lagging strand
D) Break hydrogen bonds
Answer: C
Explanation: Okazaki fragments are short DNA pieces on the lagging strand, later joined by ligase.
71. Cyanide inhibits the electron transport chain by binding to:
A) Complex I
B) Cytochrome oxidase
C) ATP synthase
D) NADH dehydrogenase
Answer: B
Explanation: Cyanide binds to cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV), blocking electron transfer to oxygen.
72. Enzyme involved in unwinding DNA during replication is:
A) Ligase
B) Gyrase
C) Helicase
D) Primase
Answer: C
Explanation: DNA helicase separates the strands by breaking hydrogen bonds between bases.
73. Which hormone regulates the basal metabolic rate (BMR) in humans?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Thyroxine
D) Growth hormone
Answer: C
Explanation: Thyroxine (T₄) and triiodothyronine (T₃) regulate the metabolic rate in tissues.
74. Which immune cells release histamine during an allergic reaction?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Mast cells
D) Neutrophils
Answer: C
Explanation: Mast cells release histamine and other mediators during hypersensitivity reactions.
75. In Drosophila, the gene responsible for segmentation in the embryo is:
A) Bicoid
B) Nanos
C) Gap genes
D) Even-skipped
Answer: D
Explanation: Even-skipped is a pair-rule gene expressed in 7 stripes, important for segmental patterning in Drosophila.
76. Which of the following acts as a second messenger in a signaling pathway?
A) ATP
B) cAMP
C) DNA
D) Glucose
Answer: B
Explanation: Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a common second messenger that transduces signals from membrane-bound receptors.
77. A person with blood group AB can receive blood from:
A) AB only
B) A and B only
C) O only
D) A, B, AB and O
Answer: D
Explanation: AB is the universal recipient; they have no anti-A or anti-B antibodies, so they can receive from all groups.
78. In the nephron, most reabsorption of water takes place in:
A) Loop of Henle
B) Distal convoluted tubule
C) Proximal convoluted tubule
D) Collecting duct
Answer: C
Explanation: The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is responsible for reabsorbing ~65–70% of filtered water.
79. Which organism is dioecious?
A) Earthworm
B) Leech
C) Cockroach
D) Tapeworm
Answer: C
Explanation: Cockroach is dioecious (separate sexes). Others listed are hermaphrodites.
80. What would be the consequence if an antigen-presenting cell (APC) lacks MHC class II molecules?
A) T-helper cells will not be activated
B) T-cytotoxic cells will not be activated
C) B cells will not be activated
D) Macrophages will not be activated
Answer: A
Explanation: MHC class II is required to activate CD4⁺ T-helper cells, essential for initiating adaptive immune response.
81. The anticodon region is present on:
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) DNA
Answer: C
Explanation: tRNA has the anticodon loop, which pairs with the codon on mRNA during translation.
82. Which component of the respiratory chain pumps protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane?
A) Complex II
B) Complex IV
C) ATP synthase
D) Ubiquinone
Answer: B
Explanation: Complex I, III, and IV pump protons across the membrane; Complex II and ubiquinone do not.
83. The most abundant immunoglobulin in human serum is:
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgD
D) IgG
Answer: D
Explanation: IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation, providing long-term immunity.
84. In a plant, the apical meristem gives rise to:
A) Leaves
B) Flowers
C) Secondary xylem
D) Primary tissues
Answer: D
Explanation: Apical meristems produce primary tissues responsible for primary growth (lengthening).
85. The process of development of pollen grains from microspore mother cells is known as:
A) Megasporogenesis
B) Embryogenesis
C) Microsporogenesis
D) Pollination
Answer: C
Explanation: Microsporogenesis is the formation of microspores (pollen grains) from microspore mother cells via meiosis.
86. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Estrogen
D) Oxytocin
Answer: B
Explanation: Glucagon increases blood glucose by promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
87. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is:
A) Neuron
B) Nephron
C) Neurilemma
D) Nephridium
Answer: B
Explanation: Each nephron filters blood and forms urine; it is the basic functional unit of the kidney.
88. The plants which flower when exposed to short periods of light and long uninterrupted darkness are:
A) Long-day plants
B) Day-neutral plants
C) Short-day plants
D) Seasonal plants
Answer: C
Explanation: Short-day plants require a critical length of night to initiate flowering (e.g., rice, soybean).
89. The process of formation of gametes is called:
A) Gametogenesis
B) Sporogenesis
C) Embryogenesis
D) Fertilization
Answer: A
Explanation: Gametogenesis includes spermatogenesis and oogenesis—formation of haploid gametes via meiosis.
90. The Bohr effect describes the:
A) Effect of oxygen on carbon dioxide dissociation
B) Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin
C) Effect of carbon dioxide on oxygen dissociation
D) Breakdown of hemoglobin
Answer: C
Explanation: The Bohr effect explains how increased CO₂ or decreased pH causes hemoglobin to release O₂.
91. Which molecule is a zwitterion at physiological pH?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Amino acid
D) Glucose
Answer: C
Explanation: At pH ~7, amino acids have both positive (–NH₃⁺) and negative (–COO⁻) groups → zwitterion.
92. Which of the following is a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda?
A) Peripatus
B) Hydra
C) Nereis
D) Limulus
Answer: A
Explanation: Peripatus (Onychophora) shows features of both annelids and arthropods.
93. Mendel’s law of independent assortment is not applicable when:
A) Two genes are located on different chromosomes
B) Two genes are linked
C) Two traits are considered
D) Two genes segregate
Answer: B
Explanation: If genes are linked (on same chromosome), they do not assort independently during meiosis.
94. Which organ is responsible for producing bile?
A) Gall bladder
B) Stomach
C) Pancreas
D) Liver
Answer: D
Explanation: Liver synthesizes bile, which is stored in the gall bladder and helps emulsify fats.
95. What does the term symbiosis mean?
A) One species benefits and other is unaffected
B) Both species benefit
C) One is harmed, other benefits
D) Two species live in close association
Answer: D
Explanation: Symbiosis is a close and long-term biological interaction between two different species.
96. The technique used to amplify DNA is:
A) Gel electrophoresis
B) RFLP
C) PCR
D) ELISA
Answer: C
Explanation: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) exponentially amplifies specific DNA segments.
97. A trait that helps an organism survive in its environment is called:
A) Evolution
B) Adaptation
C) Mutation
D) Variation
Answer: B
Explanation: Adaptations are inherited traits that increase survival or reproduction in a specific environment.
98. Which stage of meiosis leads to reduction in chromosome number?
A) Metaphase I
B) Anaphase I
C) Telophase II
D) Anaphase II
Answer: B
Explanation: Anaphase I separates homologous chromosomes, reducing the cell from diploid to haploid.
99. Trypsin is activated from trypsinogen in the:
A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Liver
D) Esophagus
Answer: B
Explanation: In the duodenum, enterokinase converts trypsinogen → trypsin, which digests proteins.
100. The enzyme responsible for CO₂ fixation in the Calvin cycle is:
A) Rubisco
B) PEP carboxylase
C) Malate dehydrogenase
D) Phosphoglucoisomerase
Answer: A
Explanation: Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (Rubisco) catalyzes the fixation of CO₂ in C₃ plants.
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